Questions & Mysteries Did Zoro use advanced Conquerors Haki against Kaido in Chapter 1010?

What kind of CoC did Zoro use?

  • Advanced CoC

    Votes: 107 70.4%
  • Basic CoC

    Votes: 30 19.7%
  • He didn't use CoC

    Votes: 15 9.9%

  • Total voters
    152
Honestly I don't see an analogy on odas answer. He simply reffered to both instances at once. You simply believe that Odens attack was not with CoC so you could use an analogy as your argument and apply it to oda. Its more simple than that. He simply confirmed both attacks to be with CoC without any rhetorical stylistic devices like you think. Its even absurd to think that he would use this as an answer for the kid who most likely doesn't even get what a analogy or general rhetorical stylistic devices are. :ihaha:
Dude... I AM THE ONE WHO USED AN ANALOGY...wtf??? Do you even know what an analogy is? Or did you simply not read my post?
I gave you an analogy with 2 cars, where i comment in the same way Oda did, but refering to only 1 of the cars. Same thing could apply to Oda's answer. But you, for bias reasons, think it is not the case without being able to proof that.
Oda's answer is not a confirmation since there are 2 possible interpretations of his answer.
 
Dude... I AM THE ONE WHO USED AN ANALOGY...wtf??? Do you even know what an analogy is? Or did you simply not read my post?
I gave you an analogy with 2 cars, where i comment in the same way Oda did, but refering to only 1 of the cars. Same thing could apply to Oda's answer. But you, for bias reasons, think it is not the case without being able to proof that.
Oda's answer is not a confirmation since there are 2 possible interpretations of his answer.
Exactly you used an analogy and implied that it would be exactly odas logic therefore he must've been using an analogy just like you did thats the conclusion of your comment. And I told you afterwards why your analogy doesn't apply to odas logic since he is much more simple than that and would give a kid a simple and straight answer since both attacks are in the kids mind and not just one. Why would he leave out the second attack and only reffer to one since the kid was asking about both attacks? In your analogy the lamborghini is reffering to togen shirataki and the jeep is reffering to kamusari right? By that you want to imply that both attacks do different things like your off roading. A Jeep is meant for off roading while a Lambo is not. But you still can drive a lambo off road, even if a jeep is much more suitable for it. However you first need to explain why both attacks would be different like a jeep has a different purpose than a lambo. Both are slashing techniques afterall and both are penetrating like a exact same vehicle class but with different brandings. The only difference is the black lightning. And thats why I think Oda reffered both being with CoC and not just kamusari. If you still think I don't get what an analogy is then explain it to me. And explain me why it would apply to odas logic.
 
Last edited:
Exactly you used an analogy and implied that it would be exactly odas logic therefore he must've been using an analogy just like you did thats the conclusion of your comment.
:nicagesmile::lawsigh:.........

How are you unable to understand something as simple as that and get it wrong for the 3rd time? Whatever i am gonna leave this conversation, completely pointless at this point.
 
How are you unable to understand something as simple as that and get it wrong for the 3rd time? Whatever i am gonna leave this conversation, completely pointless at this point.
Then explain to me what I understood wrong instead of loosing your tail ´by just leaving. You ignored like 2/3 of my whole response to you, maybe you should read my message fully too before telling me to do the same? Now, explain me what exactly I am getting wrong and maybe I can agree with you.
Post automatically merged:

Then explain it to me, if I understood it wrong instead of loosing your tail and just leave. You ignored like 2/3 of my whole response to you, maybe you should read my message fully too before telling me to do the same? Now, explain me what exactly I am getting wrong and maybe I can agree with you.
Plus explain to me why your analogy would apply to odas logic and by doing that please don't ignore my whole response to you. Thanks. ;)
 
Last edited:
Then explain to me what I understood wrong instead of loosing your tail ´by just leaving. You ignored like 2/3 of my whole response to you, maybe you should read my message fully too before telling me to do the same? Now, explain me what exactly I am getting wrong and maybe I can agree with you.
I didn't ignore anything from your post lol? The first sentence was stupid enough. The rest is not better. No need for me to quote everything.
There is nothing to explain - it's as simple as it gets and you don't get it, don't blame me for not explaining something straight forward to you...
 
I didn't ignore anything from your post lol? The first sentence was stupid enough. The rest is not better. No need for me to quote everything.
There is nothing to explain - it's as simple as it gets and you don't get it, don't blame me for not explaining something straight forward to you...
You are the one who's complicating a simple answer bro. If Oda doesn't distance Kamusari from Tougen Shirataki then both of them are COC-attack. It's simple and even a little child can understand what he's implying here.
 
I didn't ignore anything from your post lol? The first sentence was stupid enough. The rest is not better. No need for me to quote everything.
There is nothing to explain - it's as simple as it gets and you don't get it, don't blame me for not explaining something straight forward to you...
Okay then explain me why both attacks are similar but differentiate themselves from each other in order for you to use it as an analogy. In my previous comment I already explained to you that both attacks are from the same group and have the exact same purpose. They are a sword/slashing technique and they have the purpose to penetrate which both of them do. Odens attack completely penetrates the mountain god in a way that it splits him in half, rogers slash penetrates through odens defenses. They have the exact same purpose the only arguably difference are the visual representation of black lightnings which rogers attack has and odens has not and that oden wasn't split in half due to his durability.
Post automatically merged:

Okay then explain me why both attacks are similar but differentiate themselves from each other in order for you to use it as an analogy. In my previous comment I already explained to you that both attacks are from the same group and have the exact same purpose. They are a sword/slashing technique and they have the purpose to penetrate which both of them do. Odens attack completely penetrates the mountain god in a way that it splits him in half, rogers slash penetrates through odens defenses. They have the exact same purpose the only arguably difference are the visual representation of black lightnings which rogers attack has and odens has not and that oden wasn't split in half due to his durability.
For an analogy to work 2 things have to be similar, not be in the exact same group or category and differentiate from each other to work.
Here is the definition and my understanding of an Analogy: Analogy Definition & Meaning | Dictionary.com

An analogy would be for example a human brain and a vast computer. They share similarities in calculating stuff but 1. the brain is biological and the computer is not. 2. The brain is capable of thinking and holding a conciousness and the computer is not. They are similar in one way or another but differenciate themselves completely. This however cannot be applied to odens and rogers attack explained above you.

By your logic of an analogy would be ''Oda meant Kamusari and not Togen Shirataki because they may be similar since they are slashing techniques but rogers attack had CoC in it therefore oda meant kamusari with it.'' How can you prove that Odens attack hasn't had CoC in it? Ashura had it, so why not odens as well? That would only make sense if only Rogers attack would have CoC in it. But we all saw that Zoros attack also had CoC in it without any lighting whatsoever. It would only be an analogy if Odens attack would not contain CoC to differenciate from Rogers one, but we all know CoC imbued attacks penetrate. Both Odens and Rogers attack did penetrate. And don't tell me zoros attack didn't penetrate, it did. Everything was too shallow, CoA and ACoA. Nothing could penetrate enough to deal lasting damage to kaido.
 
Last edited:
Dude you are the one questioning Oda himself for a simple simple comment of him made for a 12 yo kid.
he really isnt, he is just interpreting it differently, and his interpretation does make sense and his analogy works well too.

Then explain to me what I understood wrong instead of loosing your tail ´by just leaving. You ignored like 2/3 of my whole response to you, maybe you should read my message fully too before telling me to do the same? Now, explain me what exactly I am getting wrong and maybe I can agree with you.
oda did not use an analogy. that was never part of his point. not even close.

hhiragoro is using an analogy to explain to you how it is possible to interpret odas answer differently.
Post automatically merged:

You are the one who's complicating a simple answer bro. If Oda doesn't distance Kamusari from Tougen Shirataki then both of them are COC-attack. It's simple and even a little child can understand what he's implying here.
he isnt complicating shit though. and in his analogy he didnt need to distance the lambo from the jeep in his hypothetical response either.

yall just need to have the intellectual honesty to admit his interpretation is a possible conclusion to reading odas answer lmfao.
 
he really isnt, he is just interpreting it differently, and his interpretation does make sense and his analogy works well too.


oda did not use an analogy. that was never part of his point. not even close.

hhiragoro is using an analogy to explain to you how it is possible to interpret odas answer differently.
Post automatically merged:


he isnt complicating shit though. and in his analogy he didnt need to distance the lambo from the jeep in his hypothetical response either.

yall just need to have the intellectual honesty to admit his interpretation is a possible conclusion to reading odas answer lmfao.
Or I dont know he could be overcomplicating that answer from Oda. 99% of normal human beings would understand that Oda was referring to both attacks. Just because you use some dumb ass analogy doesnt mean you are right.
 
So are you arguing that he didn’t use even basic CoC? We’d have to go through every instance of advanced CoC being used to say for sure.

If that is the case then we would have to make an argument for Zoro doing meaningful damage without advanced CoC though, which every other character who has done anything meaningful to him so far has needed.
It was left unclear
If zoro used CoC, him and kaido will be sure of it
And Oda would clearly show us the visuals

Since when someone uses CoC without us seeing visuals of it?
 
Top